Posted by Paul (169.233.14.132) on March 14, 2002 at 16:01:42:
There are many attacks in the Gospels on wealthy people in particular and wealth in general. Certain passages have a positively Marxist sort of redistributory message. So what happened? What other aspects of the ideology and historical circumstances caused this bent to have been largely ignored? I have theories myself but I'd prefer to hear others rather than simple denials or assents.